I know today is Epiphany, but why is it called ‘Twelfth Night’? It’s the twelfth day AFTER Christmas Day – so, when did the drummers drum? Was that yesterday? Or how about the ‘First’ day of Christmas, when the partridge sat in the pear tree, was that really Boxing Day? Or does Twelfth Night literally refer to the twelfth night from Christmas Day, in which case, the Twelve Days ended at midnight last night, and did Twelfth Night end at midnight or at dawn this morning? So should I have already put my denuded (not that it was ever very well clothed) 20 centimetre fir tree in a pot out in the garden yesterday?
These questions bother me every year, yet no one else ever seems to notice. All I can say to that is: do the maths.
And why do I bother to ask, when there is now a source of answers for everything?
In most Western ecclesiastical traditions, Christmas Day is considered the “First Day of Christmas” and the Twelve Days are 25 December – 5 January, inclusive, making Twelfth Night on 5 January, which is Epiphany Eve. In older customs the Twelve Days of Christmas are counted from sundown on the evening of 25 December until the morning of 6 January, meaning that the Twelfth Night falls on the evening of 5 January and the Twelfth Day falls on 6 January. However, in some church traditions only full days are counted, so that 5 January is counted as the Eleventh Day, 6 January as the Twelfth Day, and the evening of 6 January is counted as the Twelfth Night. In these traditions, Twelfth Night is the same as Epiphany and is also known as the “Thirteenth Day”. However, some churches that fall in the latter category consider Twelfth Night to be the eve of the Twelfth Day (in the same way that Christmas Eve comes before Christmas), and thus consider Twelfth Night to be on 5 January.
Wikipedia
So why have I never bothered to check that before? I probably have, it’s just that I’d forgotten the answer.
I saw the waxing moon through the slats in the venetian blind when I was doing my morning exercises earlier. Which reminded me of another question which occurred to me during one of my beach walks a few weeks ago. The sea had clearly been high enough to throw bits of seaweed, pebbles, sand etc up to the sea wall and over onto the prom, which, due to the terracing of the beach, almost never happens. It must have been due to a storm, but it got me briefly thinking about the tides – in particular, that there must have been an exceptionally high tide – and then I remembered that the moon was in its dark phase, so how could it be high tide? Which also made me realise that the tides are not related to the phases of the moon at all, as I’d been assuming, because the moon is always there (when it’s on this side of the earth), it’s just that we can’t see the bit that is in earth’s shadow – and why would that make any difference to the gravitational pull between earth on the moon? So why do the tides change as the moon changes? This puzzled me mightily for a while, until it dawned on me that the tides must change with the distance of the moon from the earth, which I suppose interacts with the phases of the moon (in terms of how much we see) but isn’t directly linked.
I didn’t check that on Wikipedia (or anywhere else), but I was quite happy to have figured it out for myself. Welcome to the inside of my head.